Just a random rant/discussion, feel free to ignore it!
So, I’m studying for an exam and one of the texts we have to know for it kinda irritates me because it makes it sound like it’s a bad thing when the government “forces” equality by creating a law for it without asking the more privileged people, because in this case they won’t have to accept/agree to it. It explains it by saying that it’s less democratic this way. But does that mean that the book thinks that the majorities have to agree for minorities to be treated as equals? Should it really be this way??
Wouldn’t it actually be a good idea if people got the same rights and were treated the same??
(The text was about/ the example was that women were kinda equal to men in the DDR by law(because they needed more workers, so they were allowed to do the same stuff as men), but that in the BRD, they weren’t and only became more equal later one when people started protesting, so it’s more democratic because the people showed their support) (maybe I’m.just misunderstanding the article, idk )